Webcast CME

Lupus Nephritis

James F. Simon, MD



Case Report

A 29-year-old female presents with tea-colored urine developed in the setting of a flare of her systemic lupus erythematosus. Her immunosuppression medications are hydroxychloroquine and prednisone at 5 mg/day. She also takes a multivitamin and oral contraception. Her symptoms include arthralgias, malar rash, and fatigue. She denies dysuria, abdominal pain, or back pain.

Her blood pressure is 150/85 mm Hg with an 85/min pulse. The physical examination is remarkable for a malar rash and 2-plus edema in her legs up to the mid-shin.

Results of laboratory studies are as follows:


Lab test Now 3 months ago
Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL 0.7 mg/dL
eGFR 39 cc/min/1.73m2 >60 cc/min/1.73m2
Albumin 3.5 mg/dL 3.8 mg/dL
Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL 13 g/dL
Platelets 350 k/uL 400 k/uL
Protein:creatinine ratio 1.2 g/g 0.2 g/g
Complement C3 (86-166) 54 mg/dL 
Complement C4 (13-46) 8 mg/dL 
dsDNA antibody (<30) 582 IU/mL 
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) Positive
Anti-Smith antibody Positive
SSA (anti-RO) Positive
SSB (anti-La) Negative
 
Urinalysis results show the following
 
Blood in urine Large amounts
Protein 4-plus
Leukocyte esterase Positive
Nitrite Negative
Red blood cells >25 per high-power field, many acanthocytes
White blood cells 5-10 per high-power field 
Red blood cell casts are noted


Question 1 of 10
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

Correct answer: Percutaneous kidney biopsy



Discussion

This patient has the acute nephritic syndrome with depressed kidney function, hypertension, and tea-colored urine with acanthocytes. This is sufficient clinical information to pursue a kidney biopsy. Although CT imaging of the kidneys could likely be done quickly, this presentation is not consistent with a urologic source of hematuria with casts and noted proteinuria; therefore, a CT scan would not be warranted.



Question 2 of 10
What would be the most likely findings on a kidney biopsy?

Diffuse proliferative (class 4) lupus nephritis



Discussion

When patients with lupus present with the acute nephritic syndrome, the types of lupus nephritis (LN) to consider are class 3 and class 4. The difference between the two is based on how many glomeruli are involved with endocapillary proliferation (class 3 <50%, class 4 >50%), with class 4 typically having more severe symptoms.1 In this patient, 75% of the glomeruli had proliferative lesions. As a group, patients with class 4 LN will have a more severe degree of kidney dysfunction, hypertension, and proteinuria (including nephrotic range) than class 3 LN. Despite this, differentiating class 3 from class 4 LN is not possible clinically because some patients with class 3 LN will have more severe disease if the number of glomeruli involved approaches 50%. Likewise, occasionally a patient with class 4 LN can present without hypertension or kidney dysfunction. Option B is incorrect because this patient is not nephrotic clinically and proteinuria is not in the nephrotic range, making class 5 LN very unlikely. Option E is not correct as the platelet count, although a bit lower, is not low enough to suggest and thrombotic microangiopathy.



Question 3 of 10
In addition to high-dose corticosteroids, what would be the first-line treatment of choice to induce remission in this patient?

Correct answer: mycophenolate mofetil and IV cyclophosphamide



Discussion

High-dose mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) at a dose of 1000-1500 mg twice daily in addition to high-dose corticosteroids is the first-line therapy for proliferative LN because of its favorable side effect profile compared with cyclophosphamide. A regimen of low-dose IV cyclophosphamide (Eurolupus protocol) has been shown to have similar efficacy as MMF and a similar side effect profile.2,3 Thus, both MMF and IV cyclophosphamide are considered first-line therapies. However, consideration should be made for specific side effect profiles when choosing a regimen. In particular, the risk of infertility would need to be reviewed in-depth with a female patient of child-bearing age. The Eurolupus protocol3 is used more frequently in Europe than in the United States, where, in general, MMF is often the first-line therapy. This preference is noted in the American Society of Rheumatology guidelines.2 None of the other medications would be considered first-line therapy for lupus nephritis.4-7 Recently, a new calcineurin inhibitor, voclosporin (Lupkynis), was FDA approved for use with MMF and corticosteroids in patients with LN. The AURORA phase 3 clinical trial showed this combination resulted in higher renal response rates with a similar side effect profile.8 This has not yet been officially determined to be a first-line regimen.



Question 4 of 10
Which lab values should be followed to track the effectiveness of response to immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct answer: C3, C4, and dsDNA Ab levels



Discussion

Measuring the therapeutic response of systemic lupus symptoms, kidney function, and proteinuria are considered key clinical factors in determining whether remission is achieved. However, depressed C3 and C4 levels and elevated dsDNA levels are hallmarks of a lupus nephritis flare. These abnormalities will trend back to or close to normal ranges as remission is induced. None of the other lab values fluctuate with disease activity.1,2



Question 5 of 10
If this patient had presented with a platelet count of 75 k/uL in addition to her other symptoms and laboratory results, concern would be raised for all of the following conditions except which?

Correct answer: Complement-mediated thrombotic microangiopathy



Discussion

All of the above can develop in a patient with active lupus and cause anemia and thrombocytopenia; however, this patient’s blood pressure is not high enough to cause a thrombotic microangiopathy.9 In studies, patients with malignant hypertension-associated thrombotic microangiopathy (thrombotic microangiopathy resolved only after controlling blood pressure) had a mean arterial pressure of 159 mm Hg (range 123-189 mm Hg)10 or mean blood pressure of 262/160 mm Hg11 with more severe kidney dysfunction (mean serum creatinine 5.2 mg/dL) than patients with “primary” thrombotic microangiopathy.10 This patient’s mean arterial pressure was 107 mm Hg, which is not in a range expected to cause a thrombotic microangiopathy.



Case continued

Two months after starting therapy with prednisone and MMF, the patient develops a viral gastroenteritis with fevers, chills, nausea, and vomiting that turns into abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She notifies you a week later that she feels better except for persistence of the diarrhea and abdominal bloating.


Question 6 of 10
What is the next appropriate step?

Correct answer: decrease MMF dose



Discussion

The major dose-limiting side effects of MMF are gastrointestinal (GI) side effects (abdominal pain and diarrhea) and leukopenia. GI side effects will often be dose-dependent, in which patients will tolerate lower doses but not higher ones. They can also contribute to persistence of diarrhea from another cause even when that cause has resolved. In these cases, decreasing the MMF dose or even holding it for up to a week may be needed for the diarrhea to resolve12



Question 7 of 10
Which of the following is a risk factor for progression of kidney disease in lupus nephritis?

Correct answer: Male sex



Discussion

Although lupus nephritis is more common in females, males are at higher risk for progression of kidney disease, as are nonwhite race, lower socioeconomic status, onset in children, frequent relapses, or failure to reach complete remission and proteinuria levels above 4 grams/24 hours at presentation.13


Case continued

After 1 month on MMF and a tapering dose of prednisone, the patient’s lupus symptoms have resolved. Lab study results show serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, C3 65 mg/dL, C4 28 mg/dL, and urine protein: creatinine ratio of 0.8 g/g.


Question 8 of 10
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Correct answer: no changes



Discussion

The standard course of MMF induction therapy is 4 to 6 months. After that, the dose can be reduced to 500 to 750 mg twice/day.1,4



Question 9 of 10
While the patient is on high-dose corticosteroids (eg, prednisone > 20 mg/day), which of the following infections should prophylactic medications be used to prevent?

Correct answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii



Discussion

The use of mycophenolate mofetil alone does not warrant Pneumocystis jirovecii prophylaxis, but use of high-dose prednisone is a potential risk factor for resurfacing of Pneumocystis jirovecii infections. As such, it is common practice to use prophylactic antibiotics in such patients, especially for prednisone doses larger than 20 mg/day.14 It is not recommended that prophylactic regimens be used for any of the other infections listed in the answers.


Question 10 of 10
Once a patient reaches remission and completes their induction regimen, how long should a lower-dose regimen to maintain remission be used?

Correct answer: At least 2 years



Discussion

Although the optimal timeframe has not been established, the minimum time a patient should receive immunosuppressive therapy for lupus nephritis is 24 months, with some sources quoting up to 5 years.1,9


KEY POINTS

  • Lupus nephritis is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus, and will often occur earlier in the course of disease.
  • Presentation with the nephritic or nephrotic syndrome warrants urgent referral for a kidney biopsy.
  • Classes 3, 4, and 5 lupus nephritis most often require therapy.
  • Standard first-line therapy for lupus nephritis includes high-dose corticosteroids and high-dose mycophenolate mofetil.
  • Induction therapy is used for 4 to 6 months after which long-term lower-dose maintenance therapy is prescribed.